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Ps103 -> RE: Freddie and Fannie (9/8/2008 1:30:26 PM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: deliveredarling Once again, I am curious how PMI plays into this. If the PMI wasn't to pay for default loans and protect the mortgage company itself, then why do we have to pay it. It benefits us none and apparently doesn't do much for helping the mortgage industry either.[&:] Well, a lot of the bad loans were structured so there was no PMI--there were piggy-back loans for 100% of the selling price (some were even over 100%). I wanted a house that is listed for 375k. To avoid PMI, I would ordinarily need a 75k down payment (which would give me that much equity in the house right out of the box). But I don't have the 75k. So my friendly lender--eager to get the loan--fixes me up with a 300k primary mortgage, then a 56,250 loan and another loan for the remaining 18,750. The lender is happy, because he got the business, and then turned around and sold all my loans to Fannie and Freddie, so he is off the hook. I am happy, because I got this sweet house that I couldn't afford--but hey, I avoided PMI! And besides, the housing market has no where to go but up, so I can refinance in a few years and by then, with the increase in value, the difference will be reckoned to me as equity. Only that is not how it turned out. The price of my house did *not* go through the roof, when I go back to refinance no one wants to know me, and I now owe more for the house than I could possibly sell it for and I can't make any of the payments now that my nifty adjustable rates have adjusted. At least that is my understanding of the problem. But, if everyone *did* have PMI, what do you think would happen to the mortgage insurance companies when they had to pay off all those defaulted loans...?
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