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psende -> RE: In my Father's house are... (8/6/2008 11:31:02 AM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: MrFribbles quote:
I've looked at "in My Father's house" as meaning something like, "under My Father's rule." so the word "house" is not being defined as a building but as a dominion. Do you see anywhere in Scripture that backs up this interpretation? This is what I mean--perhaps "dominion" isn't the right word. quote:
And there went a man of the house of Levi, and took to wife a daughter of Levi. (Ex 2:1) And Moses said unto the people, Remember this day, in which ye came out from Egypt, out of the house of bondage . . . (Ex 13:3a) Thus saith the LORD, Did I plainly appear unto the house of thy father, when they were in Egypt in Pharaoh's house? (I Sam 2:27b) To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary. (Luke 1:27) And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. (Luke 1:33) In each of these cases, "house" means something that encompasses more than the word "home." It deals with family, lineage, rule, etc. that is under a great man's authority, even if that authority has passed through generations. When one speaks of the "House of Windsor," for instance, one is speaking of a great deal more than Windsor Castle." Thus, I do not take, "In My Father's house," to mean "the building where My Father abides." I see it as including everything that He has. I think the translators who went with "rooms" did so for the benefit of those who equate "house" with "building" in order for it to make sense. As someone mentioned, "dwelling places" is perhaps a better translation than "mansions," but if Jesus meant "dwelling places" like we think of "homes," they might be rather nice. Thus, "mansions" works for me. Of course, He may have meant something like "a place of abiding" as in "abide in Me." In heaven, we will abide in Him fully.
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